Past papers FCPS mcqs syllabus result

Medicine

October 2008

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Medicine mcqs fcps online free download 2008

1. In type 4 Hypersensitivity mainly cells are

a. T cells+macrophages
b. B cells+macrophages
c. IGE+T cells
d. B+T cells
e. None.

2: Malignant tertian malaria caused by

a. P.falciparum
b. P.malariae
c. P.knowlasea
d. P.ovale
e. P.vivax

3: In duodenal perforation the artery involves.

A. Gastro duodenal artery
B. Lt.Gastric Artery
C. Splenic Artery
D. Rt. Gastric Artery

4: Parasite transmission e no feco-oral route
A. Ent histolytica
B. E.Vernicularis
C. Tenia solium

5: Antimalarial drug e can be used other than malaria
A. Arthemether
B. Basoquine
C. Choroquine
D. Mefloquine
E. Quinine

6: About RT adrenal gland choose correct
A. Has same size in adults & infants
B. Has 3 arterial supply
C. Pyramidal in shape
D. Separate form kidney by perinephric fat

7: Typhoid fever
A. All pts becomes carrier
B. Roth spots on 7th day
C. Organism is B-hemolytic, non_lactose

8: Melanocytes derived from
A. Endoderm
B. Ectoderm
C. Neural crest cells
D. Pharyngeal arch
E. Lateral plate

9: Most of drugs are metabolize in
A. Heart
B. Liver
C. Kidney
D. Lungs

.10: ½ life of a drug
Options not remember

11: Premalignant condition
1. Cervical erosion
2. Myeloprolefrative

12: In Cushing decrease amount of
A. Neutrophils
B. Lymphocytes
C. Basophiles
D. Monocytes

13: Babinski sign -ve in
A. UMNL
B. Sleep
C. New born
D. LMNL

14: Loss of accommodation reflex due to occulumotor nerve site of lesion
A. Pons
B. Medulla
C. Midbrain
?

15: Aspiration of gastric contents go in the
A. Rt lower lobe of lungs

16: Comatose patient are more prone to regurgitation
A. Stomach full
B. Rt lateral position
C. Lt lateral position

17: Vein that doesn’t directly drain in the inferior vena cava
A. Hepatic vein
B. Lumber vein

18: Rt kidney doesn’t relate to
A. Liver
B. Ascending colon
C. Ribs
D. Descending colon

19: Fever, headache Mydriasis associated with no option of meningitis
Options not remember

20: An I/v urograph of old boy shows Excretion of dye normal at Rt side but absence of shadow of Lt kidney instead there is a small shadow above the bladder on Lt side Most likely
i. Crossed ectopic kidney
ii. Unilateral agenesis
iii. Non rotating kidney
iv. Pelvis kidney
v. Horse shoe kidney

21: Drug with inhibit COX-1 as well as COX-2
A. Diclofenic
B. Naproxen
C. Aspirin

22: Rx of salicylate poisoning which can increase the excretion of salicylate
A. I/v NAHCO3
B. Dehydration state
C. Diuretics
D. 10% D/W

23: organ having subcapsularis & receives afferents
A. Palatine tonsils
B. Lingual tonsils
C. Thymus
D. Lymph node
E. Spleen

24: End arteries are in
A. Spleen
B. Brain
C. Kidney
D. Lungs
E. Heart

25: Fat stores in body
A. Glucagons lipogenic
B. Insulin lipolysis
C. Body fat <5 g/dl
D. Epinephrine has lipolytic effect

26: IDDM main disturbance by causing
A. Resistance to insulin
B. Receptors destruction
C. Increase ketogenesis by liver

27: Thirst increase due to
A. ADH
B. Aldosterone
C. Eryropoietin
D. Angiotensin 2

28: Sound of mitral valve is best heart at
Left 5th I.C space in midclavicular line

29: AV valve closure is responsible to
A. 1st heart sound
B. 2nd heart sound
C. 3rd heart sound
D. 4th heart sound
E. None of the above

30: During cardiac cycle ventricles are filled in
A. Atrial systole
B. Rapid ejection
C. Isovolumetric relaxation
D. Rapid inflow

31: In neurogenic stock
A. Loss of vasomotor tone
B. Decrease C.O
C. Increase C.O

32: In Hemorrhage after compensation with one of the following decrease
A. Venous Compliance
B. H.R
C. Cardiac output

33: CCF pt developed tachycardia best management of RX
OPTIONS NOT REMEMBER

34: Site of SA node
A. Lower part of Crista Terminals of R.A
B. RT auricle
C. Sulcus terminalis
D. Upper part of Crista Terminals of R.A

35: Which one is essential Fatty Acid
A. Palmitic acid
B. Len oleic
C. Saturated F.A

36: Boy having edema due to renal
A. Decrease plasma colloid osmotic pressure
B. Due to decrease interstitial fluid osmotic pressure
C. Decrease capillary pressure

37: Histamine theophyline & Aminophylline have same action
A. To increase the gastric acid secretion

38: I/v large amount of DEXTROX will inhibit
A. CORTISOL
B. ADH
INSULIN
C. THYROID
D. OXYTOCIN

39: Which 1 of the following is aggressive in nature?
A. Small cell carcinoma
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Basal cell carcinoma
D. Nevis cell

40: CHEMOTAXIS is a feature of
A. CH.inflammation
B. AC.inflammtion

41: X-linked disorder
A. Marfan syndrome
B. Glycogen storage disease
C. Duchene muscular dystrophy
D. Cystic fibrosis

42: In factor 8 deficiency specific test is
A. PT
B. APTT
C. Plat.count
D. Thrombin time
E. Fibrin products

43: Vomiting centre located in
A. Pons
B. Medulla
C. Midbrain
D. Cerebellum

44: Arousal is controlled by
A. Hypothalamus
B. Pituat.gland
C. Reticular Formation

45: Arterial supply of spinal cord
A. Vertebral artery
B. Ant. Choroidal artery
C. Post. Choroidal artery

46: Mast cells r released 4om
A. Esinophils
B. Basophiles
C. Neutrophils
D. Lymphocytes

47: Regarding Glomerulotubular balance. Choose correct 1.
OPTIONS NOT REMEMBER

48: Regarding parathyroid gland.
A. Located anterolateral 2 thyroid gland
B. Covered by pretracheal fascia
C. Supplied by sup. Thyroid artery
D. Derived 4om 1st pharyngeal arch

49: Radiosensitive tumor
A. Bone
B. Lymph node
C. Muscle
D. Cartilage

50: Rh incompatibility related 2
Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction
Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction
Type 3 hypersensitivity reaction
Type 4hypersensitivity reaction
None of the above

51: Regarding IGG2 cells
OPTIONS NOT REMEMBER

52: Regarding Th-2 cells
OPTIONS NOT REMEMBER

53: Hypovolumic shock
A. Hot peripheries
B. Inc. C.O
C. Inc. H.R
D. Inc. Urine O.P
E. Dec. H.R

54: Regarding Microscopic feature of CASEOUS Necrosis
OPTINS NOT REMEMBER

55: Female pt. on oral contraceptive & u want to give her oral anticoagulant u must chk
A. PT
B. APTT
C. PT & aPTT
D. Thrombin
E. Fibrin products

56: Pt. came after 1 day of RTA with c/o unable of standup after seated position. Probably muscle injury.
A. G.Maximus
B. G.Minimus
C. Sartorius
D. Gracilis
E. Q. Femorus

57:Pt. feel tingling sensation on rt. Thumb during c-setion after giving epidural anesthesia. its due to.
A. C4
B. C5
C. C6
D. C7
E. C8

58:Diagnosed pt. of sciatica cam in o.p.d with c/o loss of sensation of RT. Little toe with difficulty in eversion of Rt. Foot. Injury to
A. L3
B. L4
C. L5
D. S1
E. S2

59: Below the medial epicondyle of humerus passes
A. Median nerve
B. Radial nerve
C. Ulnar nerve
D. Long thoracic nerve
E. Musculocutaneous nerve

60: Intermittent Diplopia is a classical sign of
A. Mys. Gravis
B. Inc. I.C.P
C. Horner syndrome

61: Pt. expire due to sudden inc. B.P.Autopsy shows thinning of tunica media.COZ OF DEATH
A. Berry aneurysm
B. Dissecting aneurysm
C. Marfan aneurysm
D. Temporal arteritis

62: Artery enters in cranium & becomes the principle artery of brain
A. Common Carotid
B. External Carotid
C. Internal Carotid
D. Maxillary Artery
E. Temporal

63: 1 of the following is not epileptogenic
A. flouxitin
B. Amitriptyline
C. Imipramine

64: Opoid Toxicity causes
A. Nausea & vomiting
B. Psychosis
C. Pin point pupil
D. Resp. depression

65: 1 of the following is not classified as non barbiturate hypnotic
A. Bromide
B. Choral hydrate
C. Triazolam
D. Chlormethimazole

66: In CARDIOGENIC SHOCK
A. Adrenaline
B. Dopamine & Dobutamine
C. I/V NaHCO3
D. 10% D/W

67: Coz of FATAL DIARRHEA
A. V.Cholrea
B. C.Botilinium
C. E.Coli

68: Anemia of CRF is best treated with
A. Dialysis
B. Blood transfusion
C. Folic Acid
D. Iron
E. E-poi tin

69: Pellagra is due to def. of
A. NIACIN
BIOTIN
B. Vita. C
C. Vita. B6
D. Folic acid

70: Site of constriction of esophagus. Chose correct one
A. Cricopharangeus
B. Left Bronchus crosses it
C. When enters in diaphragm
D. At cardiac end

71: Single cranial nerve which doesn’t contain parasympathetic fibers
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 7
E. 9

72: Tactile two point discrimination by
A. Pacinian
B. Ruffini
C. Free nerve endings
D. Merkel disc

73: Patient with resting tremors, rigidity, hypokinesia
A. Cerebellum
B. Parkinson disease
C. UMNL
D. LMNL

74: Motor aphasia due to lesion of
A. Wernicke’s area
B. Prefrontal gyrus
C. Sup. Temporal gyrus
D. Brocas area

75: Regarding lumber puncture which one is correct
A. Between L4 & L5
B. CSF pressure in mm of Hg
C. Spine fully extended
D. Angle of needle must be 45 degree
E. Advice to patient stands up immediately after L.P

76:Heat loose of body is controlled by
A. Lat. Hypothalamus
B. Preoptic hypothalamus (NO OPTION OF ANT. HYPOTHALAMUS)
C. Post. Hypothalamus
D. Thalamus
E. Hippocampus

77: Damage to dorsal column tract causes ipsilateral loose of
A. Pain
B. Fine touch
C. Temperature
D. Vibration

78: The first step occurs when light falls on retina
A. 11-Cisretinal to all Trans retinal

79: Lesion of mamillary body causes
A. Fear & rage
B. Hyper sexuality
C. Loose of Recent memory
D. Hyperphagia

80: Regarding facial nerve which one is correct?
A. Purely sensory
B. Give chorda tympani to posterior 1/3 of tongue
C. Supplies to middle ear
D. Supplies to stapedius muscle

81: CSF having proteins 400 mg/dl, glucose 40 & mainly lymphocytes. Diagnosis
A. Encephalitis
B. Cryptococcus virus
C. TBM
D. Bacterial meningitis
E. Viral meningitis

82: Lateral sulcus of cerebellum
A. Insula
B. Occipital lob

83: PH-7.54, O2-55 & CO2-25 cause of deranged ABG’S
A. Carbon mono oxide poisoning
B. Hysterical hypoventilation
C. Salicylate poisoning

83: Asthma diagnosed by
A. I.R.V
B. R.V
C. T.L.C
D. FEV
E. Tidal volume

84: Diagnosis of Emphysema
A. Physiological dead space
B. Physiological shunt
C. V/Q- affinity
D. V/Q-0
E. V/Q-1

85: Muscle of quite inspiration
A. Diaphragm
B. Intercostals muscle
C. Sternocladomastoid
D. Scalenius posterior

86: Muscle of forceful inspiration
A. External intercostals muscle

87: Regarding hemoglobin
A. Adult contains alpha-2 & gama-2
B. Contains iron in ferric form
C. Causes acidosis when add with H+

88: Receptors mediates increase heat rate
A. Alpha-1
B. Alpha-2
C. Beta-1
D. Beta-2
E. Nicotinic

89: Stress hormone of body called
A. ACTH
B. Epinephrine
NO OPTIONS OF CORTISOL

90: Heart muscle works as syncytium because of
A. Sarcomere
B. SER
C. Gap junction
D. Tight junction
E. Intercalated disk

91: Preload depends on
A. EDV of L.V pressure
B. EDV of R.A pressure

92: Diagnosed case of thyrotoxicosis came to you with heart rate of 190b/mn. Best treatment is
A. Digoxin
B. Lidocain
C. Verapamil
D. Propanalol

93: Saw tooth P waves in ECG associated with
A. Atrial flutter
B. A.V block

94: Captoprill (M.O.A)
Blocks ACE enzyme

95: Cyanosis due to
A. Anemia hypoxia
B. When deoxihaemoglobin is more then 5g/dl

96: Pulmonary vasculature resistance increase in
A. High altitude

97: 1/3 of total body water contains
A. E.C.F
B. I.C.F
C. Plasma
D. Interstitial

98: GFR can be calculated by
A. 24 hours urinary out put
B. S.creatinine
C. B.U.N
D. Urea

99: S/Chloride maintained by kidney through
A. Na+-K+-2Cl co transportation in thick ascending L.O.H
B. Na+ -K+ - 2Cl co transportation in thin ascending L.O.H

100: INC. Aldosterone causes commonly
A. Acidosis
B. DEC. Rennin
C. Sodium depletion
D. K+ retention

101: M.O.A spironolactone
OPTIONS NOT REMEMBER

102: A.D.H is inhibited by
A. Alcohol
B. Hemorrhagic Shock
C. Pain
D. Exercise

103: Erythropoietin secreted from
A. Peritubular cells
B. Juxtaglomerular cells
C. Macula densa

104: Hormone which causes relaxation of all G.I.T muscles
A. G.I.P
B. Gastrin
C. Secretin
D. CCK
E. V.I.P

105: Which causes diarrhea when it reaches to large colon?
A. Glucose
B. Fructose
C. Lactose
D. Sucrose
E. Maltose

106: Pt. with puffy eyes & edema with dec. TSH & when TRH given TSH slightly rises.coz of disturbance is
A. Primary Hypothyroidism due to Hypothalamus

107: Neurphyposis contains
A. Cholinergic
B. Adrenergic
C. Secretory cells
D. Puituicytes

108: In autoimmune diseases of thyroid antibodies against
A. TSH
B. Thyroglobulin
C. Follicular cells
D. C cells

109: Amniocentesis shows 47XXY
A. Turner syndrome
B. Adrenogenital syndrome
C. Klinefelter syndrome

110: In pregnancy cause of Hyper Parathyriodism
A. Prim. Hypoparathyroidism
B. Becoz estrogen causes inhibition of bone resorption

111: Estrogen doesn’t have action
A. Delayed bone loss after menopause
B. Follicular growth
C. Inc. serum Cholesterol
D.

112: HLA DR 27 associated with
A. Ankylosing spondilytis
B. Reiters Syndrome
C. R.A
D. S.L.E

113: Tumor marker of Thyroid carcinoma is
A. C.E.A
B. Calcitonin
C. Alpha fetoprotein
D. Beta H.C.G

114: Which hormone maintains body temperature by oxidative phosphorylation
A. Adrenal
B. Nor adrenaline
C. Cortisol
D. Thyroid gland

115: Hydrocele is the aculummation of fluid
A. Gubernaculums Testis
B. Scortal ligament
C. Tunica vaginalis
D. Vas deferens
E. Epidydimis

116: After gastrectomy pt. came with c/o
A. Iron def. anemia
B. Megaloblastic anemia due to folate
C. Pernicious anemia.

117: Old age Pt. came with jaundice Hb-10g/dl,S,Bili-2.8mg/dl,Retic 10%.U/S abdomen normal.whats Ur diagnosis.
A. Acute Hepatitis
B. Rotor syndrome
C. Dubin Johnson Syndrome
D. Gilbert Syndrome
E. Hepatitis B

118: IN Tumor immunity liver has a function of
A. To detoxify the toxic substances
B. Protein synthesis
C. Globulin Synthesis

119: Cholangio-Carcinoma caused by
A. Clonorchis –Sinesis
B. S.Hematobonium
C. S.Japanicum
D. Echunococcus Granuloses

120: Old age pt. Diagnosed as a case of OBSTRUCTIVE JAUNDICE & now cam With c/o bleeding tendency. Which 1 of the following cause.
A. Due to bile stones
B. Defi. Of VIT.K due to DEC. absorption from gut
C.
D.
E.

121: C.E.A is a tumor marker of
A. Breast
B. Colorectal Carcinoma
C. Testis
D. Thyroid

122: Juvenile Polyps are
A. Meckels diverticulum’s
B. Hyperplasic polyps
C. Hereditary non polpyposis
D. Colonic adenocarcinoma

123: Granuloma formation is not associated with
A. Sarcoidosis
B. T.B
C. Pneumococcal Pneumonia

124: Pt. came with distortion of nose, lymph nodes palpable, AFB +ve.whats Ur diagnosis
A. T.B
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Leprosy
D. None of the above

125: Which 1 of is not a Tumor marker
A. Alpha 1 antitrypsin
B. Vesmin
C. Desmin

126: Which 1 of the following is the diff. b/w malignant & benign tumor
A. Metastasis

127: Workers Having Increase chances 2 develop Malignancy
A. Tobacco
B. Coal
C. Asbestos worker

128: H.I.V pts. Have tendency to get infection of
A. E.B.V
B. H.P.V
C. H.S.P
D. Pneumocystitis carnii
E. Chicken Pox

129: Diagnosis of H.I.V when
A. Less CD4 cells count
B. Less CD8 cells count

130: Joint pain, Xerostomia, conjunctivitis sicca, associated with
A. Sjogran Syndrome
B. Scleroderma

131: Which 1 of the following is not associated with Dry gangrene?
A. D.M
B. Throboembolism
C. Bacterial Endocarditis

132: Platelets aggregation is due 2
A. Thromboxane A2
B. Prostaglandins
C. Cox 1
Cox 2

133: Which 1 of the following factor causes Delayed wound healing
Inc. Blood flow
Vit. C Deficiency
Vit. E deficiency

134: Diagnosed case of tuberculosis PPD or Tuberculin test found to be negative
Because of one of the following factor
A. A.T.T
B. Immunosuppressive
C. Steroid intake

135: Blood group having no antigen to A & B
A+
B+
AB+
O-
O+

136: About leukocyte adhesion factor responsible
Integrin
Selectin

138: In humans the End product of PURINE metabolism is
A. Xanthin
B. Urea
C. Uric Acid
D. Lactic Acid
E. Pyruvate